Below is from the California Bankruptcy Specialists List serve. Debtor’s obligations under a timeshare agreement are discharged. But what about postpetition and/or post discharge obligations? If the obligation arises under the contract, I say it’s gone. But what about when the debtor uses the timeshare postpetition? He or she certainly cannot use it for free? The value of the postpetition use would be, I assume, presumed to be the contract price, and that would be a postpetition debt. But what does it mean that the debtor “used” the timeshare – postpetition?
From the listserve:
Renay Rodriguez posted:
During recent research I found:
Email from my friend Lee Raphael,
